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From |
Marcello Pagano <[email protected]> |

To |
[email protected] |

Subject |
Re: st: RE: nonsense category in ordered logit |

Date |
Tue, 22 Feb 2005 09:41:12 -0500 |

Sounds good to me, assuming you have enough data, except

that the interpretation rightfully is a little more involved. Something like, the same covariates affect the probability

of 2 and 3 similarly relative to a constant, although 2 is more(less) likely than 3; i.e. that constant *may* be different.

So the statement you make is relative to the covariates, and is thus

also quite dependent on the model you have used to introduce

these covariates.

m.p.

E. Michael Foster wrote:

Good morning,I don't know that I understand your question. Suppose we get rid of all the

other outcomes and just concentrate on the outcomes 2 and 3. Now we

have a binomial. Are you asking whether the covariates are all equal

to zero, or do you want further that the probability of each is one-half?

Nope, I'm happy to let the constant / thresholds determine the proportion in each of those two categories.

So, if I just run an ordinary logit on that distinction (2 v. 3) and do a likelihood ratio test for the betas, I'd have demonstrated what I hope to show? I find it intuitive, but there's often something technically wrong with my intuition.

thanks,

Michael

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**References**:**Re: st: RE: nonsense category in ordered logit***From:*"E. Michael Foster" <[email protected]>

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