Re: st: RE: nonsense category in ordered logit

[Marcello Pagano <pagano@hsph.harvard.edu>]

Sounds good to me, assuming you have enough data, except
that  the interpretation rightfully is a little more involved. 
Something like, the same covariates affect the probability
of 2 and 3 similarly relative to a constant, although 2 is more(less) 
likely than 3; i.e. that constant *may* be different.

So the statement you make is relative to the covariates, and is thus
also quite dependent on the model you have used to introduce
these covariates.

m.p.



E. Michael Foster wrote:


> Good morning,
>
>
> > I don't know that I understand your question.  Suppose we get rid of 
> > all the
> > other outcomes and just concentrate on the outcomes 2 and 3.  Now we
> > have a binomial.  Are you asking whether the covariates are all equal
> > to zero, or do you want further that the probability of each is 
> > one-half?
>
> Nope, I'm happy to let the constant / thresholds determine the 
> proportion in each of those two categories.
>
> So, if I just run an ordinary logit on that distinction (2 v. 3) and 
> do a likelihood ratio test for the betas, I'd have demonstrated what I 
> hope to show?  I find it intuitive, but there's often something 
> technically wrong with my intuition.
>
> thanks,
> Michael
>
>
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