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Re: st: RE: nonsense category in ordered logit

From   "E. Michael Foster" <>
Subject   Re: st: RE: nonsense category in ordered logit
Date   Tue, 22 Feb 2005 09:26:24 -0500

Good morning,

I don't know that I understand your question.  Suppose we get rid of all the
other outcomes and just concentrate on the outcomes 2 and 3.  Now we
have a binomial.  Are you asking whether the covariates are all equal
to zero, or do you want further that the probability of each is one-half?
Nope, I'm happy to let the constant / thresholds determine the proportion in each of those two categories.

So, if I just run an ordinary logit on that distinction (2 v. 3) and do a likelihood ratio test for the betas, I'd have demonstrated what I hope to show? I find it intuitive, but there's often something technically wrong with my intuition.


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