st: Propensity Score Matching

[Tarik Demp <tarik.demp@gmail.com>]

Dear statalist,

I have a basic question related to a propensity score matching. The model
is: I have start-up companies, some of them ask their bank for a loan, some
of them ask their family/friends. Now, I want to assess how this choice
affect the costs of the loans. Therefore, I run the following propensity
score matching:

psmatch2 bankloan age of company industry of startup etc., neighbor(10)
common outcome(loan costs)

bankloan equals 1 if they got a loan from the bank and 0 if they got a loan
from their family/friends. After having matched bank-financed startups
(treated) to family-/friends-financed start-ups (untreated), I can compute
how much more bank-financed start-ups pay compared to their peer group of
matched family-/friends-financed start-ups.

My question now is: If I would like to explain what increases the premium
bank-financed start-ups have to pay over their comparable non-bank-financed
startups can I use the variables I used in the probit estimation? So, could
I use the propensity score matching just as peer selection tool and re-use
the variables again as e.g. age of company might explain the premium
bank-financed start-ups have to pay compared to other start-ups?

Thank you for your help
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