Bookmark and Share

Notice: On April 23, 2014, Statalist moved from an email list to a forum, based at statalist.org.


[Date Prev][Date Next][Thread Prev][Thread Next][Date Index][Thread Index]

st: When is 'no trimming' performed using metatrim


From   Setor Kunutsor <[email protected]>
To   "[email protected]" <[email protected]>
Subject   st: When is 'no trimming' performed using metatrim
Date   Sun, 24 Feb 2013 13:58:17 +0000

Hi all,

I have conducted a meta-analysis based on a total of 10 studies using a Random-effects model. There was substantial heterogeneity among contributing studies (I2>70%).

 A funnel plot revealed evidence of publication bias which was further confirmed by Egger’s regression symmetry test (P=0.03).

I am using the trim-and-fill method to adjust for publication bias. I am aware this method performs poorly in the presence of substantial between study heterogeneity.

On running the metatrim command, the output suggests that no trimming was performed.

What does this mean? Does it mean there was no publication bias? How do I interpret the results?

Many thanks

S. Kunutsor


*
*   For searches and help try:
*   http://www.stata.com/help.cgi?search
*   http://www.stata.com/support/faqs/resources/statalist-faq/
*   http://www.ats.ucla.edu/stat/stata/


© Copyright 1996–2018 StataCorp LLC   |   Terms of use   |   Privacy   |   Contact us   |   Site index