Dear all,
A reviewer of a manuscript that we recently submitted
to a top medical journal stated that the "independent
variable, known to be positively skewed , be
log-transformed prior to inclusion in a Cox
proportional hazards model". As far as I know there is
no normality assumption for the Cox model,
additionally transforming this complicates the
interpretation of the reported hazard ratios. Am I
missing something or is the reviewer wrong? Other than
for interpretation, is there another reason to
transform an independent variable in the Cox PH model?
Thank you in advance,
Ricardo.
Ricardo Ovaldia, MS
Statistician
Oklahoma City, OK
__________________________________________________
Do You Yahoo!?
Tired of spam? Yahoo! Mail has the best spam protection around
http://mail.yahoo.com
*
* For searches and help try:
* http://www.stata.com/support/faqs/res/findit.html
* http://www.stata.com/support/statalist/faq
* http://www.ats.ucla.edu/stat/stata/
