I am trying to be sure I am interpreting the marginal effects on a
multinomial logit correctly. I believe that the marginal effect signals a
percentage point movement. For example, if the marginal effect on a 0/1
variable is .03 then the change in the variable from 0 to 1 would signify a
3 percentage point increase. Am I correct? Would this change for a
continous independent variable?
Thanks,
Danny
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