--- Reza C Daniels wrote:
> Would I be correct to say that if I wanted to estimate the joint
> distribution of (Y, X | Z), then I could do so by switching regression,
> which would first estimate (Y | X, Z) then (X | Y, Z), the product of
> which would give me (Y, X | Z)?
Reza:
No, using Bayes theorem:
f(x,y|z) = f(x|y,z) f(y|z)
HTH,
Maarten
-----------------------------------------
Maarten L. Buis
Department of Social Research Methodology
Vrije Universiteit Amsterdam
Boelelaan 1081
1081 HV Amsterdam
The Netherlands
visiting address:
Buitenveldertselaan 3 (Metropolitan), room Z434
+31 20 5986715
http://home.fsw.vu.nl/m.buis/
-----------------------------------------
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