Kenley Barrett wrote:
> I'm sorry, I should have included all possible counts. I have pasted
> them below. To be sure that I understand properly: this correlation
> coefficient is due the fact that although a value of 1 for wifelit
> guarantees a value of 0 for wifeprim, and a value of 1 for wifeprim
> guarantees a value of 0 for wifelit, a value of 0 for wifeprim does
> NOT guarantee a value of 1 for wifelit, and a value of 0 for wifelit
> does NOT guarantee a value of 1 for wifeprim. So the correlation
> coefficient should not be -1 (as I was thinking earlier). Could you
> please confirm for me that I'm understanding this right? I'm sorry to
> bother you again; I am new at this, as you can tell.
Surely, it is inappropriate to calculate correlation coefficients between
two dichotomous variables? As Rich and Nick have rightly suggested, -tab-
(with the -all- option) is the way to go here. :)
CLIVE NICHOLAS |t: 0(044)7903 397793
Politics |e: [email protected]
Newcastle University |http://www.ncl.ac.uk/geps
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