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From |
"Jitian Sheu" <jtsheu@mail.cgu.edu.tw> |

To |
<statalist@hsphsun2.harvard.edu> |

Subject |
st: Why do logit model coefficients produce signs opposite to those obtained from OLS? |

Date |
Thu, 4 Feb 2010 23:02:16 +0800 |

Dear listers: I am running a very very simple binary model, y=a+bX+e, where y is a dummy variable. Before performing -logit- command, I estimate the above model by a traditional OLS, i.e. linear probability model (regress y x1 x2...) I knew that OLS is not a good model for fitting this model. I just want to get some direction from results obtained from traditional OLS However, after I perform -regress- and -logit-, I found signs of estimated coefficients from these two models are not the same. I am just wondering whether this is "normal"? or I am doing anything wrong? Many thanks. Jitian * * For searches and help try: * http://www.stata.com/help.cgi?search * http://www.stata.com/support/statalist/faq * http://www.ats.ucla.edu/stat/stata/

**Follow-Ups**:**st: Question regarding Stata 11***From:*"Jitian Sheu" <jtsheu@mail.cgu.edu.tw>

**st: RE: Why do logit model coefficients produce signs opposite to those obtained from OLS?***From:*"Verkuilen, Jay" <JVerkuilen@gc.cuny.edu>

**Re: st: Why do logit model coefficients produce signs opposite to those obtained from OLS?***From:*Maarten buis <maartenbuis@yahoo.co.uk>

**st: AW: Why do logit model coefficients produce signs opposite to those obtained from OLS?***From:*"Martin Weiss" <martin.weiss1@gmx.de>

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