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st: RE: n in probability functions


From   "Nick Cox" <n.j.cox@durham.ac.uk>
To   <statalist@hsphsun2.harvard.edu>
Subject   st: RE: n in probability functions
Date   Tue, 6 May 2008 21:48:03 +0100

No. A counter-example is -binomial()-. But the converse appears to be
almost true. 
Whenever you want to specify an integer df, the argument in question is
called n, n1, or n2. 

David Airey

Is n in the probability functions always df? Like in ttail(n,t)?  
Several of the functions are explicit with this, several are not. I've  
always assumed it was df.


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