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From |
"Nick Cox" <n.j.cox@durham.ac.uk> |

To |
<statalist@hsphsun2.harvard.edu> |

Subject |
st: RE: n in probability functions |

Date |
Tue, 6 May 2008 21:48:03 +0100 |

No. A counter-example is -binomial()-. But the converse appears to be almost true. Whenever you want to specify an integer df, the argument in question is called n, n1, or n2. David Airey Is n in the probability functions always df? Like in ttail(n,t)? Several of the functions are explicit with this, several are not. I've always assumed it was df. * * For searches and help try: * http://www.stata.com/support/faqs/res/findit.html * http://www.stata.com/support/statalist/faq * http://www.ats.ucla.edu/stat/stata/

**References**:**st: n in probability functions***From:*David Airey <david.airey@Vanderbilt.Edu>

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