I don't know that I understand your question. Suppose we get rid of all the
other outcomes and just concentrate on the outcomes 2 and 3. Now we
have a binomial. Are you asking whether the covariates are all equal
to zero, or do you want further that the probability of each is one-half?
I am asking this because what test you use depends on the question you
are asking. Indeed, if you have enough data, this thinking leads to a
way to proceed.
m.p.
E. Michael Foster wrote:

That was my intuition, too, but I was a little fuzzy on the test to use.
I couldn't convince myself that the models were nested
thanks,
michael
From "Nick Cox" <n.j.cox@durham.ac.uk>
To <statalist@hsphsun2.harvard.edu>
Subject st: RE: nonsense category in ordered logit
Date Mon, 21 Feb 2005 20:41:59 -0000
By showing that -logit- with two and -ologit-
with three give essentially equivalent results?
Nick
n.j.cox@durham.ac.uk
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