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Re: st: indicator variable and interaction term different signs but both significant


From   Nahla Betelmal <nahlaib@gmail.com>
To   statalist@hsphsun2.harvard.edu
Subject   Re: st: indicator variable and interaction term different signs but both significant
Date   Sat, 6 Apr 2013 23:45:44 +0100

Thanks Anthony for the reply. Actually Overconfidence indicator
variable takes value of 1 for overconfident managers, and value of
zero for rational managers. The market value variable is a continuous
positive variable.

I am not sure that interpreting the indicator variable (OC_D) has
literal interpretation in the interaction model, I am confused due to
the significance ! otherwise I would only have focused on the
interaction term (i.e. overconfident managers manipulate earnings
upwardly when the market value of their firms is high) but I am not
sure if I got it right.

Many thanks, and I am looking for others responses as well

Nahla


On 6 April 2013 23:24, Anthony Fulginiti <fulginit@usc.edu> wrote:
> Hi Nahla,
>
> I would recommend waiting for others on Statalist to respond to provide confirmation of my interpretation.  However, my thoughts are that this is suggesting that your main effect for overconfidence is suggesting that overconfident managers manipulate earnings less than other managers (if that is the reference group) at market value 0.  The interaction would then suggest that the effect of the overconfidence variable on earnings manipulation is increasingly greater at higher market values.  I look forward to hearing other replies.
>
>
> Anthony
>
>
> On Apr 6, 2013, at 2:45 PM, Nahla Betelmal wrote:
>
>> Dear Statalist,
>>
>> I am having difficulty interpreting the results from OSL regression. I
>> am trying to see whether Overconfident managers manipulate earnings in
>> a certain context.
>>
>> The dependent variable earnings_Mgt is continuous  The problem is that
>> the indicator variable for overconfidence (OC_D) is negative and
>> significant, while the interaction between the indicator variable and
>> market_value variable (OC_MV) is positive and significant. What does
>> that mean?
>> Does it mean that overconfident managers manipulate earnings less than
>> others (rational managers), but when the market value is high they
>> manipulate earnings more than rational managers do?
>>
>> Your help is highly appreciated,
>>
>> many thanks
>>
>> Nahla Betelmal
>>
>>
>> Linear regression              Number of obs  = 56
>> F( 8, 47)     = 3.60
>> Prob > F      = 0.0025
>> R-squared     = 0.3719
>> Root MSE      = .08355
>> Robust
>> earnings Mgt       Coef.      Std. Err.       t         P>t           [95% Conf.      Interval]
>> size                .0058268  .0092169        0.63      0.530 -.0127153       .0243689
>> leverage          .0924198    .0724032        1.28      0.208 -.0532367       .2380763
>> MV                 .0046896   .0032752        1.43      0.159 -.0018993       .0112784
>> litigation          .0310148  .0267527        1.16       0.252        -.0228048       .0848344
>> private_D        -.0638102    .023056 -2.77   0.008   -.110193        -.0174275
>> same_D            -.08197     .0273465        -3.00   0.004   -.136984        -.026956
>> OC_D            -.0730767     .0288269        -2.54   0.015   -.131069        -.0150844
>> OC_MV          .0105348       .0049493        2.13    0.039   .000578 .0204916
>> _cons              .0381444   .0615391        0.62    0.538   -.0856564       .1619452
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