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RE: st: When is 'no trimming' performed using metatrim


From   Setor Kunutsor <skk31@medschl.cam.ac.uk>
To   "statalist@hsphsun2.harvard.edu" <statalist@hsphsun2.harvard.edu>
Subject   RE: st: When is 'no trimming' performed using metatrim
Date   Tue, 26 Feb 2013 12:59:59 +0000

Metatrim (author: Thomas J. Steichen, RJRT, steicht@rjrt.com)

-----Original Message-----
From: owner-statalist@hsphsun2.harvard.edu [mailto:owner-statalist@hsphsun2.harvard.edu] On Behalf Of Nick Cox
Sent: 24 February 2013 14:13
To: statalist@hsphsun2.harvard.edu
Subject: Re: st: When is 'no trimming' performed using metatrim

Please explain where user-written commands you refer to come from.

Nick

On Sun, Feb 24, 2013 at 1:58 PM, Setor Kunutsor <skk31@medschl.cam.ac.uk> wrote:

> I have conducted a meta-analysis based on a total of 10 studies using a Random-effects model. There was substantial heterogeneity among contributing studies (I2>70%).
>
>  A funnel plot revealed evidence of publication bias which was further confirmed by Egger's regression symmetry test (P=0.03).
>
> I am using the trim-and-fill method to adjust for publication bias. I am aware this method performs poorly in the presence of substantial between study heterogeneity.
>
> On running the metatrim command, the output suggests that no trimming was performed.
>
> What does this mean? Does it mean there was no publication bias? How do I interpret the results?

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