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re: st: Propensity score matching


From   "Ariel Linden, DrPH" <ariel.linden@gmail.com>
To   <statalist@hsphsun2.harvard.edu>
Subject   re: st: Propensity score matching
Date   Thu, 19 Jul 2012 11:30:01 -0400

The simple answer is that matching is intended to create balance between
treated and controls on pre-intervention covariates. 

For your situation (as I understand it), the companies who issue bonds
should be comparable to those firms who do not issue bonds. Here
comparability is determined by ensuring that they balance on covariates that
are measured before they start issuing bonds, since the "issuing of bonds"
appears to be the intervention. 

Your additional comments "both sample varies between 2007 and 2011" and "how
should the dataset look" gives us no meaningful information to help you. You
should think carefully about how you pose a question if you would like to
get a meaningful response.

Ariel 

Date: Wed, 18 Jul 2012 19:57:53 +0100
From: "KASHEFIPOUR E." <E.KashefiPour@swansea.ac.uk>
Subject: st: Propensity score matching 

Hi,

I have a question regarding the PSM estimation. I want to investigate
the companies who issue bonds between 2007 and 2011, so this group would
be as a treatment sample. Then I want to match the treatment group with
a set of companies who do not issue bonds during the observation period
(2007-2011). I was wondering how I could match them as both sample
varies between 2007 and 2011? How should the dataset look like?

Best,
Eln

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