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From |
"Khieu, Hinh" <Hdkhieu@usi.edu> |

To |
"statalist@hsphsun2.harvard.edu" <statalist@hsphsun2.harvard.edu> |

Subject |
RE: st: interaction dummy or separate regression |

Date |
Wed, 28 Sep 2011 12:19:42 -0500 |

Austin, Thank you very much for your note. I have a feeling it is not right, but not what is not right and you answered it. So, to test whether debt or equity is used to finance abnormal Y, there are only two ways: 1. put abnormal Y as dependent variable and drop all dummy and interaction terms 2. still keep Chg in Y as dependent variable but run one regression based on Abnormal Y observations alone and another regression based on Other Y. I wonder if you can do me a favor by commenting my two solutions above. Thank you very much. Regards, Hinh ________________________________________ From: owner-statalist@hsphsun2.harvard.edu [owner-statalist@hsphsun2.harvard.edu] On Behalf Of Austin Nichols [austinnichols@gmail.com] Sent: Wednesday, September 28, 2011 12:11 PM To: statalist@hsphsun2.harvard.edu Subject: Re: st: interaction dummy or separate regression Khieu, Hinh <Hdkhieu@usi.edu> : You are not going to get unbiased estimates of any of those coefs, if that's what you mean. You are not allowed to select on Y, nor include a transformation of it as a regressor, and I strongly recommend you explore what you are estimating using a simulation on generated data where you know the true effects (a1, a2, etc.). You are allowed to select on an exogenous X variable, but not on "abnormal" Y. On Wed, Sep 28, 2011 at 1:00 PM, Khieu, Hinh <Hdkhieu@usi.edu> wrote: > Dear statalist members, > > > > I have the following model and I am not sure if there is an econometric issue with it. I would appreciate any amount of help. Change in Y = a1*growth opportunities + a2*profit + a3*debt + a4*equity + a5*dummy (=1 if change in Y is abnormally high, zero otherwise) + a6 * debt * dummy + a7 * equity * dummy, where abnormally high is defined to be whenever change in Y is greater than 2 times the industry average of Y over the last 3 years (t, t-1, and t-2). > > > > I run fixed effects regression with firm and year dummies on the above model for 2 groups of firms: large firms versus small firms. My question is: is there any mechanical or econometric problem with using the dummy for abnormal Y and its interaction with debt and equity? I know I can split the sample into abnormal Y and normal Y and run two separate regressions. But I want to know specifically if the model above is problematic from an econometric perspective. What if I drop the dummy and keep only the interactions? * * For searches and help try: * http://www.stata.com/help.cgi?search * http://www.stata.com/support/statalist/faq * http://www.ats.ucla.edu/stat/stata/ * * For searches and help try: * http://www.stata.com/help.cgi?search * http://www.stata.com/support/statalist/faq * http://www.ats.ucla.edu/stat/stata/

**Follow-Ups**:**Re: st: interaction dummy or separate regression***From:*Austin Nichols <austinnichols@gmail.com>

**References**:**st: interaction dummy or separate regression***From:*"Khieu, Hinh" <Hdkhieu@usi.edu>

**Re: st: interaction dummy or separate regression***From:*Austin Nichols <austinnichols@gmail.com>

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