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From |
Steven Samuels <sjhsamuels@earthlink.net> |

To |
statalist@hsphsun2.harvard.edu |

Subject |
Re: st: Re: Cox regression |

Date |
Sun, 1 Feb 2009 13:39:24 -0500 |

Steve

I want to use a Cox proportional hazards model with 1 independent variable corresponding to drug types. There are 3 drugs and for 1 of these there are no failures. . xi: stcox i.fadh i.fadh _Ifadh_1-3 (naturally coded; _Ifadh_1 omitted) failure _d: death analysis time _t: dt Cox regression -- no ties No. of subjects = 60 Number of obs = 60 No. of failures = 15 Time at risk = 1326.29 LR chi2(2) = 9.61 Log likelihood = -47.766052 Prob > chi2 = 0.0082------------------------------------------------------------------------------_t | Haz. Ratio Std. Err. z P>|z| [95% Conf. Interval]-------------+----------------------------------------------------------------_Ifadh_2 | 1.68e+09 8.79e+08 40.49 0.000 5.99e+08 4.68e+09 _Ifadh_3 | 4.33e+09 . . . . . My question is - how do I handle the situation where one of the groups has no failures, and how do I calculate a meaningful hazard ratio.

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**Follow-Ups**:**Re: st: Re: Cox regression***From:*Janet Hill <janethill73@yahoo.co.uk>

**References**:**st: Re: Cox regression***From:*Janet Hill <janethill73@yahoo.co.uk>

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