That is one of my primary problems. I see a number of articles using count
models for outcome variables such as those presented earlier, but no
justification was provided for doing so other than the fact that the DV
has a Poisson or negative binomial distribution. I assume that they should
provide justification for using these techniques, but does the
justification exist?
If, in fact, the DV has a Poisson or negative binomial distribution,
then that is your justification for using count models. But how do
you know that it does have such a distribution??? And why would you
even think that it does, given the way the questions are worded? Is
there some "classic" piece these authors cite, or do they just do it
without citation? There must have been somebody who started this -
if you could find out who it was that might help solve the puzzle.