(Serving my penitence from earlier on today...)
A few days ago, Ed Al-Hussainy wrote:
> 1. Is it possible to "pool" or in some way combine data across surveys for
> a fixed-effects regression analysis?
I've seen something like this done by other analysts (take a look, for
instance at Clarke et al's (2004) excellent 'official' book on the 2001
British Election Study, which does almost exactly what you're proposing to
do). If they can get away with it and make valid conclusions from their
analyses, why can't you?
> 2. If I run regressions at the country-level, is there a way to make
> cross-country comparisons using regression coefficients or marginal
> effects?
I can't give a Stataish answer to this right now, but have you ever looked
at Przeworski and Teune's (1970) excellent treatise on comparative social
analysis? If not, have a poke and see if it's useful to you in dealing
with this point (particularly chapter 2 and 3).
CLIVE NICHOLAS |t: 0(044)7903 397793
Politics |e: [email protected]
Newcastle University |http://www.ncl.ac.uk/geps
References:
Clarke D et al (2004) POLITICAL CHOICE IN BRITAIN, Oxford: Oxford
University Press.
Przeworski A and Teune H (1970) THE LOGIC OF COMPARATIVE SOCIAL INQUIRY,
New York: Wiley-Interscience.
*
* For searches and help try:
* http://www.stata.com/support/faqs/res/findit.html
* http://www.stata.com/support/statalist/faq
* http://www.ats.ucla.edu/stat/stata/
