Dear all,
we ran an experiment where we asked people how many tasks they wanted to
carry out under two different contracts. We ran both the Wilcoxon and the
Sign tests on that data. I think that both tests check whether people
prefer working more under one of the two contracts. Probably, the Wilcoxon
test takes the magnitude of the difference into account, while the sign
test does not. Am I right?
If so, what does it mean if the difference between people�s effort in
contract A and in contract B is significant when I run the Wilcoxon test
but not when I consider the Sign test? In my mind, the opposite would be
more plausible�What�s the matter with my conclusions?
Thank you very much for your help
stefania
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