Re: st: RE: nonsense category in ordered logit

["E. Michael Foster" <foster@pop.psu.edu>]

Good morning,


> I don't know that I understand your question.  Suppose we get rid of all the
> other outcomes and just concentrate on the outcomes 2 and 3.  Now we
> have a binomial.  Are you asking whether the covariates are all equal
> to zero, or do you want further that the probability of each is one-half?
Nope, I'm happy to let the constant / thresholds determine the proportion 
in each of those two categories.

So, if I just run an ordinary logit on that distinction (2 v. 3) and do a 
likelihood ratio test for the betas, I'd have demonstrated what I hope to 
show?  I find it intuitive, but there's often something technically wrong 
with my intuition.

thanks,
Michael


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