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RE: st: RE: strange results with corr


From   "Nick Cox" <n.j.cox@durham.ac.uk>
To   <statalist@hsphsun2.harvard.edu>
Subject   RE: st: RE: strange results with corr
Date   Thu, 17 Feb 2005 18:52:06 -0000

It could make perfect sense. It all 
depends where you are coming from 
and what you want to do with the 
correlation. 

Nick 
n.j.cox@durham.ac.uk 

Clive Nicholas

> Kenley Barrett wrote:
> 
> > I'm sorry, I should have included all possible counts. I have pasted
> > them below. To be sure that I understand properly: this correlation
> > coefficient is due the fact that although a value of 1 for wifelit
> > guarantees a value of 0 for wifeprim, and a value of 1 for wifeprim
> > guarantees a value of 0 for wifelit, a value of 0 for wifeprim does
> > NOT guarantee a value of 1 for wifelit, and a value of 0 for wifelit
> > does NOT guarantee a value of 1 for wifeprim. So the correlation
> > coefficient should not be -1 (as I was thinking earlier). Could you
> > please confirm for me that I'm understanding this right? 
> I'm sorry to
> > bother you again; I am new at this, as you can tell.
> 
> Surely, it is inappropriate to calculate correlation 
> coefficients between
> two dichotomous variables? As Rich and Nick have rightly 
> suggested, -tab-
> (with the -all- option) is the way to go here. :)

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